The point of dispute was the Soviet Union asserting that the treaty would have given the Sovs permission to invade Poland and the Baltics, while the position of the UK and France was that Poland and the Baltics were sovereign and that France and the UK had no power to grant the Soviets any such thing.
I’m curious - historical illiteracy, or intentional bootlicking?
The point of dispute was the Soviet Union asserting that the treaty would have given the Sovs permission to invade Poland and the Baltics, while the position of the UK and France was that Poland and the Baltics were sovereign and that France and the UK had no power to grant the Soviets any such thing.
I’m curious - historical illiteracy, or intentional bootlicking?